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 Post subject: Question about 2 Corinthians 2:17
PostPosted: Fri Jan 25, 2013 10:24 pm 

Joined: Thu Dec 06, 2012 12:40 pm
Posts: 55
Please don't take this as a challenge against the KJV, I'm honestly looking for an explanation. I figure you all know more about how the KJV is translated and just have more experience with the KJV than I do. So here is my question:

I was using my KJV Strongs Hebrew/Greek dictionary to look up 2 Corinthians 2:17. According to Strongs the word translated "corrupt" in the KJV means peddling in the Greek. If this is true wouldn't that make this verse in the MV correct?

I'm asking cause this is one of the verses my pastor brought up to point out why KJVO is wrong.


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 Post subject: Re: Question about 2 Corinthians 2:17
PostPosted: Sat Jan 26, 2013 1:50 am 
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Joined: Tue Jul 14, 2009 7:56 am
Posts: 3255
ElainaMor, do you trust a Greek text over your English Bible?
Because there are hundreds of words the Bible correctors will use to try and get you to lose your faith in God's Holy Book. If you trust the Greek over English, then this forum is probably not going to help you. You told us you came to a point one day where you decided the Jehovah's Witness doctrine was the wrong path. Now once again, you have to decide which path you are going to take; one path trusts the KJB over all others, and the other path will take you into a maze of scholarship-onlyism which will leave you questioning the words of God for the rest of your life.

Please understand; there is no Greek text in existence that we feel takes precedence over the inerrant English in our King James Holy Bible. Greek texts did not bring America to its knees in the Great Awakening, and we don't use Greek texts to win souls to Christ today on street corners and in churches. We don't magnify the Greek here over English, and even if we did, there are several lexicons which explain how that particular Greek word can have the meaning of corrupting or adulterating. But where does this leave you? Please look at the red verses in my signature below; in my opinion, they are the most important verses in the Bible. Do you believe those words?

Please forgive the bluntness, but the KJV is never wrong; it's the men who try and correct it who are wrong. We believe this is a faith issue. The teachers and pastors who elevate these Greek renderings do not believe there is an inerrant Bible anywhere on earth, in any language. Your first mistake is not trusting your KJV to be right every time; it's good that you came out of the JW movement—now it's time to get yourself a KJV, read it and believe it—above all other texts, renderings, manuscripts, languages, pastors, popes, and teachers. We believe God wants you to stop doubting, and accept/believe the KJB as your final authority. This is a faith issue.

My friend, when you joined here on Dec 6, do you remember what I told you? Go back and read it again. The Christian life is a growth process, and instead of agonizing over Hebrew/Greek dictionaries I think you should be purchasing and studying a KJV Bible and trust it, so you can grow in your faith. The reason many new translations change the word "corrupt" is because it exposes exactly what they do; they truly corrupt God's word! Here is more info on 2 Corinthians 2:17...

Corrupt or Peddle the word of God?
http://brandplucked.webs.com/2cor217corruptpeddle.htm

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The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times. Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever." Psalms 12:6-7


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 Post subject: Re: Question about 2 Corinthians 2:17
PostPosted: Sat Jan 26, 2013 10:08 am 
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Joined: Tue Nov 09, 2010 6:42 pm
Posts: 912
ElainaMor wrote:
Please don't take this as a challenge against the KJV, I'm honestly looking for an explanation. I figure you all know more about how the KJV is translated and just have more experience with the KJV than I do. So here is my question:

I was using my KJV Strongs Hebrew/Greek dictionary to look up 2 Corinthians 2:17. According to Strongs the word translated "corrupt" in the KJV means peddling in the Greek. If this is true wouldn't that make this verse in the MV correct?

I'm asking cause this is one of the verses my pastor brought up to point out why KJVO is wrong.

Bro Parrish is correct; either KJB is the 100% preserved inspired word of God, or it is the non-existent Greek manuscripts.
If you allow the Greek to be final authority, then how will you resolve Acts 12:4?
Greek and Stong's will lead you down a slippery slope.
................

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redeemed ... with the precious blood of Christ


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 Post subject: Re: Question about 2 Corinthians 2:17
PostPosted: Sat Jan 26, 2013 11:01 am 
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Joined: Tue Jul 14, 2009 1:45 pm
Posts: 2081
Location: Amarillo, TX
Elaina
1. Please read the link Br. Parrish provided. It covers the issue about whether the word should be "corrupt" or "peddle." The bottom line is that there is an enormous amount of evidence to support the KJV translation of "corrupt."
2. Using Strong's concordance as a Greek tool only leads to confusion. It is a very simplistic, abridged, summary of words. It will not give you all of the variations or possibilities. It is not reliable because it is too brief.
3. There is one - and only one - reason why so many people want to use "peddle" instead of "corrupt." The word "corrupt" hits too close to home. The Bible Correctors will happily point the finger at SOMEBODY ELSE and accuse them of "peddling" the word of God. But when the word "corrupt" is used, it points to a personal treatment of the word of God....something they cannot stomach or own up to. If they accept the word "corrupt" then they have to admit that not every "scholar" is pure in motive. They would have to admit that there are some "scholars" who are not TEACHING the text, but rather CORRUPTING the text. And if some of the men that they honor and revere are CORRUPTING the text, then they themselves might be guilty as well....and we know that could NEVER happen, right??? :roll:
NOPE - that word has to go. It is too condemning.

4. Don't let them sway you on the KJV. I have encountered many such problems as you are encountering. I went to Bible school. I took Greek, and have a shelf full of Greek NT tools - lexicons, grammars, concordances, dictionaries, etc. Every time someone has brought something like this up, I checked them out. Without fail, every single time, they have manipulated the evidence to arive at their own conclusions to prove their own point. They were dishonest about it. There is no other way to put it. Nothing they ever said proved an error in the KJV. The link Br. Parrish provided will bear that out in this case.
If your pastor says the KJV has an error in this verse, then that would mean that would be absolutely no evidence or precedence for the KJV translators to use the word "corrupt" instead of "peddle." It is simply not true. There is TONS of evidence and precedence for the KJV translation. As I said, they correctors simply DON'T LIKE IT.

It has never failed me yet....the KJV is a trustworthy, reliable translation. The critics have NEVER proven a translational error in the KJV - and they have been trying for over 400 years. They can offer alternative translations, or a preferred definition of a particular word - but these do not constitute ERRORS in the translational aspects of the KJV.

I hope this helps!
Keep on!

In Christ,

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Pastor Steve Schwenke
Liberty Baptist Church
Amarillo, TX
Psalm 119:45 And I will walk at liberty: for I seek thy precepts.


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 Post subject: Re: Question about 2 Corinthians 2:17
PostPosted: Sat Jan 26, 2013 1:12 pm 
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Joined: Tue Feb 23, 2010 1:56 pm
Posts: 3309
Hey Elaina here's a good article on THE GREEK --->

Which Greek Do You Use???
viewtopic.php?f=6&t=729

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"It is the duty of all Nations to acknowledge the providence of Almighty God, to obey his will, to be grateful for his benefits, and humbly to implore his protection and favors." -- George Washington (Ref: A Collection, W.B. Allen, ed. 543)


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 Post subject: Re: Question about 2 Corinthians 2:17
PostPosted: Sat Jan 26, 2013 3:54 pm 
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Joined: Thu Oct 01, 2009 7:13 pm
Posts: 2293
Why do modern men see themselves, or even Dr. Strong, as so much more informed and intelligent than the 50 some men who translated the KJV? Not to mention, I believe God was involved in the translation.

It strikes me as great arrogance for men to think they know better and can tell you what the Bible should say and show you where it is wrong. It also strikes me as somewhat ironic that the further we get away from the "original languages" the more scholars think they can understand them. They must all believe in evolution as they are just so far ahead and much more intelligent than the neanderthals who lived 400 years ago. :roll: In reality, if you read the bios of some of the translators, I don't think anyone today can hold a candle to even one of the men, much less all of them put together.


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 Post subject: Re: Question about 2 Corinthians 2:17
PostPosted: Sat Jan 26, 2013 6:37 pm 

Joined: Thu Dec 06, 2012 12:40 pm
Posts: 55
Thank you everyone for your replies. Everything everyone has said makes a lot of sense. I guess I just need to have that faith that the KJV is ALWAYS correct and look at things from that angle instead of the angle where I have to be on the look out for errors. I need to keep this in prayer since I have found that since I left the JWs I have trust issues when it comes to believing what someone may be trying to teach me...I'm always looking for that angle, know what I mean?


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 Post subject: Re: Question about 2 Corinthians 2:17
PostPosted: Sat Jan 26, 2013 7:30 pm 
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Joined: Tue Jul 14, 2009 1:45 pm
Posts: 2081
Location: Amarillo, TX
Yes...it is a shift in the thought process...but keep at it!

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Pastor Steve Schwenke
Liberty Baptist Church
Amarillo, TX
Psalm 119:45 And I will walk at liberty: for I seek thy precepts.


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